Is the Gift of Tongues Still Active in the Church Today?

​​No......not in any part of the world that already has access to the gospel message, be it through books, or other forms of communication. How can I arrive at this conclusion?

​What is the gift of tongues?

Friends, let me explain exactly what the Bible teaches about  "speaking in tongues". By biblical definition, the gift of tongues is the sudden ability of a born-again Christian to speak fluently in a language, or in a dialect, that they do not know. And in every case, it is a common language of the earth. In every case, it is a temporary miracle given to serve a specific purpose–to broadcast the gospel message of Jesus Christ; on the spot, in real time.

The term "tongues" is an Old English term that was in use from about 1,000 AD–1800 AD. The term always defined that which was a common language spoken on the earth. That means a known set of grammar rules, nouns, verbs, expressions, etc. That also means that the language could be interpreted by many other speakers of that language, and that meant a large enough society to be called a nation. So, the evidence of history tells us exactly what “tongues” meant in Old English. It is also important to note that the Old English term for “tongues” was interchangeable with the term “language”. 

The Old English terms "tongues” and "language" were interchangeable and so personal preference was a determining factor on their usage. Regional dialects also played a role in one’s choice of words. This is well documented in printed media from that era and it also was the case in every Old English translation of the Bible; including the King James Version (KJV). 

Even amongst the Old English Bible translators themselves, and in the translation notes they left us, there is no evidence of disagreement as to what the term "tongues" or “languages” meant. It is apparent that in their minds the terms were synonymous. It is crystal clear that both terms meant a common language or dialect that was used by a society, or by a nation on the earth. 

The KJV translators were among the best linguistic scholars from across the United Kingdom. They came from various denominations, backgrounds, and wealth. But as a collective, they were careful to follow strict methods of language translation and peer review. And as part of this process, any disagreements over the definition of vocabulary would have been documented. Any dispute on the usage of the term “tongues” or “languages” would have been recorded; as that would have had a major impact on biblical doctrine. There is no such record to be found, not even a general discussion around the translation of these terms.

No language scholar specializing in Old English translations would dispute this fact–regardless of their religious views. In fact, the historical evidence will show that the struggle to re-define what the biblical term “tongues” is a modern struggle. And in every case, the argument was raised by people that have not looked into the linguistic evidence, nor have any real understanding of the process of linguistic translations.

I have found that, in every attempt to re-define the biblical term “tongues”, it has been pushed by a handful of denominations whose doctrine is in some way founded on a re-definition of the term. For example, if speaking in tongues means speaking in a common foreign language of the earth (and it does), then so many charismatic “Christians” are deceived if they think they can speak in some secret Holy Spirit language that only they can understand. The true biblical definition of “tongues” has no partnership with that phenomenon. It is not taught anywhere in the Bible.

In America, the bulk of the push to re-define what “tongues” meant in the Bible stems from what was at the time, a fringe group of Pentecostal “Christians”. They became popular in Los Angeles, California around 1906. The movement then went on to push its views world wide via the newly forming charismatic denominations that were spreading. For more information, see the following article:

(https://www.gotquestions.org/Azusa-Street-Revival.html).

Let's look at the evidence for the statements I have made so far.

NOTE: I will use the KJV of the New Testament because it is one of the most academically sound, literal translations from the original Greek, to the Old English. Any other version of the Bible, if it is academically sound, will itself reference the same Greek manuscripts used by the KJV Bible. If your Bible does not, then replace it with one that does. This is a linguistic issue, not a denominational one. Your Bible must reference the correct Hebrew and Greek manuscripts for translation into any language; including Old English. 

​So, the following passage represents the first occurrence of the term “tongues” used in the KJV Bible:

[Act 2:1-22, 36-38 KJV] 1 And when the day of Pentecost was fully come, they were all with one accord in one place. 2 And suddenly there came a sound from heaven as of a rushing mighty wind, and it filled all the house where they were sitting. 3 And there appeared unto them cloven tongues like as of fire, and it sat upon each of them. 4 And they were all filled with the Holy Ghost, and began to speak with other tongues, as the Spirit gave them utterance. 

5 And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven. 6 Now when this was noised abroad (i.e. broadcasted), the multitude came together, and were confounded, because that every man heard them speak in his own language (i.e. dialect). 7 And they were all amazed and marveled, saying one to another, Behold, are not all these which speak Galilaeans? 8 And how hear we every man in our own tongue, wherein we were born? 9 Parthians, and Medes, and Elamites, and the dwellers in Mesopotamia, and in Judaea, and Cappadocia, in Pontus, and Asia, 10 Phrygia, and Pamphylia, in Egypt, and in the parts of Libya about Cyrene, and strangers of Rome, Jews and proselytes, 11 Cretes and Arabians, we do hear them speak in our tongues the wonderful works of God.12 And they were all amazed, and were in doubt, saying one to another, What meaneth this?” 

So, here we see known Galileeans miraculously speaking in previously unlearned languages, and not only that, but also in specific dialects of each  language; as was needed (v.8). And in an effort to be crystal clear, verses 9-11 specify which languages of the earth were being spoken. So, let’s recognize the miracle here:

1. The sudden ability to speak fluently in that language, including specific regional dialects. This was certainly an intelligence miracle.

2. The mouth muscles that are needed to speak fluently were suddenly present in these speakers. Normally, those mouth muscles take about 10 years to develop. After about the age of ten, those muscles can not fully develop to accommodate a second language. That is why foreign speakers of any language have an accent. But notice, these men spoke fluently. So not only do we have an intelligence miracle here, but we also have a biological one.

   
   

As mentioned earlier in our study, there are two ancient Greek terms used for language or dialect, and they are used interchangeably–”dialektos” and “glossa”.These were translated into Old English for the terms “language” and “tongues” respectively. These two terms in Greek and Old English can mean the following:

1. An organ of the mouth (v. 3)

2. A known language or dialect of the earth (v. 6,8,11)

3. A an expression or poetic language

   
   

​So, to sum up this discussion so far, it is clear that the term “tongues” in the Old English meant a known language or dialect of the earth. A known set of words, and grammar rules, and an ample supply of native speakers to confirm the language being spoken. God is careful to point these facts in scripture, so that there can be NO misunderstanding of what he means by the term “tongues”. Any misinterpretation on the term tongues will produce false doctrine and mysticism, which is probably why God was so specific on his definition of the term.

So, what is the purpose for the miracle of speaking in tongues?

1. To broadcast the gospel message on the spot, in real time. 

2. To reach out to the Gentile nations with the gospel message of Jesus Christ. This is a key objective of the New Testament and the Church. 

3. To broadcast the gospel in situations where the only means available is by human speech or writing.

4. To prove that the Church had the backing of the God of the Old Testament. The gift of tongues was a known hallmark of Father God, hearkening back to the miracle of creation, and again at the Tower of Babel, where he instantly created new languages for the earth. 

   
   

So, is speaking in tongues a gift that God uses today? 

It could happen, but it would be a rarity. There is almost no need for it on the earth today. And if God did do it, the language spoken would be in a known language of the earth, so that it could be confirmed by humans, and as having come from God. The Apostle Paul commanded that those using that miracle gift should not speak unless there is a translator present to interpret and to confirm (1 Cor 14:13, 14:27). That means:

• A known set of grammar rules and terminology

• And speaking a gospel message that had already been written and delivered by 49 AD (Gal 1:8-9). So, all "new" revelations from God are barred. The gospel portions of the New Testament were completed by 49 AD.

As for the fiery cloven tongues that appeared over the head of each disciple (Acts 2:3)? The Jews of that day understood it to be:

• A sign that indicated divided languages (Tower of Babel).

• Tongues of “fire” was understood as a characteristic of God, used extensively throughout the Old Testament. Fire typically represented perfect cleansing and purity. Fire often surrounds God in many passages of the Old Testament. Scripture records angels using fiery coals to cleanse the mouth of a prophet that speaks in the presence of God (Isa 6:6)

  
  

So, in closing: How are we to respond to people that claim to be able to speak in some uncommon, angelic language that they call “tongues”?

Friends, from a loving heart, I think it would be best to let them explain for themselves  what they mean, because it is not taught anywhere in scripture. While Acts 2:4 and Rom 2:8 does speak of the Holy Spirit giving men "utterances" and “interpreting” prayers between believers and Father God, these are different Greek words used in these cases. 

In Acts 2:4, the Greek uses a term to define professional, dignified speech that was given to these simple men, so that those that heard them speak would pay attention to the message. And in Rom 2:8, the Greek states that the Holy Spirit can translate both our words and our emotions to Father God, so that our needs can truly be expressed to God. In both cases, these verses have no to do with defining the biblical terms “tongues” or “languages”. The Bible clearly defines its own terms.

The following are some additional verses that support our discussion today:

• [Rev 7:9 KJV] 9 After this I beheld, and, lo, a great multitude, which no man could number, of all nations, and kindreds, and people, and tongues, stood before the throne, and before the Lamb, clothed with white robes, and palms in their hands;

• [Rev 10:11 KJV] 11 And he said unto me, Thou must prophesy again before many peoples, and nations, and tongues, and kings.

• [Rev 11:9 KJV] 9 And they of the people and kindreds and tongues and nations shall see their dead bodies three days and an half, and shall not suffer their dead bodies to be put in graves.

• [Rev 13:7 KJV] 7 And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them: and power was given him over all kindreds, and tongues, and nations.

• [Rev 17:15 KJV] 15 And he saith unto me, The waters which thou sawest, where the whore sitteth, are peoples, and multitudes, and nations, and tongues

Dr. Michael Scalmato

Pastor, Living Word Baptist Church

Marana, AZ